Quick question if I may I own a domain word1word2.co.uk (words are generic). At time of registering in 2008, there was no trademark on the phrase or individual words. Since then, its been pointed at a holding page with no adverts. I've had plans for it, but my day job work has come first, meaning I've not had time to develop it yet. Over xmas, I had an email stating the domain was breaching a trademark and to hand over the domain straight away or they would take legal action against me. Looking at the trademark, it is for word2 word1, and the trademark was granted in 2009, over 9 months after I registered the domain. I made this fact clear to the person, and they said that fact may be true but if I continue to use the domain, then I would breach the TM. I did some digging, and have found out that the trademark owner is well known in the domain world, as they have had more than their fair share of DRS/WIPO cases against them for trademark breaching domains (which from the ones I've skimmed through, they have lost each time). My question is, can a trademark be applied retrospectively and therefore should I consider handing over the domain or allowing it to drop when they time comes around, or is this person just trying it on to get it from me free? Thanks in advance!