But if the registration was made purely for the intent to sell the domain at a later date, is that not an abusive registration? Knowing that the client would own the .co.uk?
The seller could argue that it wasn't registered with the intention of selling to the buyer of the .co.uk at a later date and that other parties would have an interest in purchasing the .uk
All this assumes the seller hadn't taken payment for the .co.uk or agreed a sale prior to registering the .uk