- Joined
- Mar 3, 2012
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Can anyone point me towards the article (which has been mentioned here a few times but I can't find the posts) which explains that even if a particular registrant had not registered a domain it would *still* not be available for you to register - ie it's a fallacy to decide that you would get a domain if it wasn't for the nasty evil current owner. I am getting moaned at by someone because I won't sell them a 3 letter domain for £100 and I'm 'ruining the web' by not using it. I would like to point them to the article. Thanks.